Multiple Choice: Select the most appropriate response.
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1.
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The annual budgeted amount for office supplies is $7,000. As of September
the department spent $5,400. Calculate the variance for office supplies
a. | $77.14 | b. | $150.03 | c. | $583.33 | d. | $1600.00 |
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2.
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The medical transcription unit is open Monday through Friday during the
day. It is responsible for transcribing an average of 200,000 lines of dictation in each
four-week period. The transcription minimum productivity standard for this unit is 1,000 lines
per day. How many FTE (full-time equivalent) transcriptionists are needed to staff this
unit?
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3.
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Finding easier/better ways to perform work is called work:
a. | diststribution | b. | flow | c. | process | d. | simplification |
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4.
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The HIM director is concerned about backlogs occurring in the technical
area. Which management tool would the director utilize to determine the amount of time
employees currently spend on various activities?
a. | GANTT chart | c. | PERT network | b. | Organization chart | d. | Work distribution
chart |
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5.
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The HIM department occupies a large closed area on the first floor of the
hospital. Both the main section of the department and the filing area are within this closed
area of the first floor. Which would be the most appropriate transportation system for use
between the main section and the file area?
a. | conveyor belt | b. | dumbwaiter | c. | elevator | d. | pneumatic
tube |
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6.
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The HIM manager performed a one-day work sampling of a file clerk’s
activity. Of 300 tasks observed, the employee speaks on the telephone 76 times. How much
of the employee’s time is spent on the phone if the employee works seven (7) hours per
day?
a. | .25% | b. | 1.77 hours | c. | 3.95 hours | d. | 42.86% |
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7.
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A coding supervisor has received permission to expand her unit by one extra
person. She has a small, but steady, backlog of discharged records to be coded. Her
coders, all excellent employees, handle all of the functions of the unit, including answering the
telephone, making copies of face sheets to be forwarded to the billing office, and analyzing the
records for deficiencies. The supervisor also performs some coding when time permits. The
coding supervisor should hire a(n):
a. | additional full-time coder | c. | assistant
supervisor | b. | analysis clerk | d. | clerk typist |
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8.
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Which is the correct sequence for performing a health information department QM
study?
a. | Identify problem, review charts, implement solution, analyze
problem | b. | Identify problem, select topic, review charts, draft criteria | c. | Select topic, review
charts, evaluate, implemented solution | d. | Select topic, review charts, identify problems,
evaluate |
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9.
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The hospital needs to expand the current filing space of 18,225 filing inches to
allow for an additional 3,250 filing inches. They are buying all new shelving for their
records. Each new shelving unit has 8 shelves, each measuring 36 inches. The total number
of shelving units needed is:
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10.
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A court ordered subpoena duces tecum issued to a hospital is signed by
the:
a. | attorney | b. | bailiff | c. | judge | d. | plaintiff |
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11.
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A 17-year-old patient requests her patient record be sent to her insurance
company; the R.H.I.T. would:
a. | send the record to the insurance company | b. | return the request
for authorization by parent/guardian | c. | refer request to the hospital
attorney | d. | disregard the request |
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12.
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Using the case mix analysis below, identify the physician who costs the hospital
the most money under the DRG system.
DRG #5 - Reimbursement Amount
$2,690.00 Physician # of
Patients
Average Cost/Case
Total
A
40
2,410
96,400
B
27
2,990
80,730
C
6
2,280
13,680
D
15
3,004
45,060
a. | Physician A | b. | Physician B | c. | Physician C | d. | Physician
D |
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13.
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The release of information from records at an alcohol-drug abuse center:
a. | is strictly governed by federal regulations | c. | is treated the same as psych
info | b. | varies from state to state | d. | is not allowed |
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14.
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Which procedures that alert systems managers that unauthorized access to a
computer is being attempted?
a. | maintenance | b. | check-up | c. | surveillance | d. | policing |
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15.
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Written authorization for release of information from a deceased patient’s
record could be signed by the:
a. | attending physician | c. | executor | b. | attorney | d. | next of kin |
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16.
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The R.H.I.T. receives a subpoena duces tecum on a current inpatient. There
are no previous hospitalizations for this patient. The R.H.I.T. would:
a. | tell the judge that the record is a current inpatient record and suggest a copy be
sent | b. | give the record to the court clerk and obtain a receipt | c. | bring the record to
court and bring it back to the hospital after each court session | d. | leave the record in
court and bring an abstract of the record back to the hospital |
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17.
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Malpractice is a form of:
a. | battery | c. | defamation | b. | breach of contract | d. | negligence |
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18.
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In the litigation process, the summons advises the defendant that:
a. | action is being taken against him | b. | he must make a deposition regarding the
complaint | c. | he must answer the complaint | d. | he must respond with an
interrogatory |
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19.
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During the trial, a jury decides questions of:
a. | law | c. | sentencing | b. | fact | d. | authentication of
evidence |
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20.
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Willful disregard of a subpoena is punishable as:
a. | contributory negligence | c. | abuse of
process | b. | breach of contract | d. | contempt of court |
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21.
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A person against whom an action is brought in a lawsuit is the:
a. | prosecutor | b. | plaintiff | c. | appellant | d. | defendant |
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22.
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A patient comes to the physician’s office complaining of a wart on his
foot. The physician recommends removal. The patient sits on the examining table and
raises his foot. This is an example of:
a. | express consent | c. | consent implied by emergency | b. | consent implied by
actions | d. | no
consent |
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23.
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A court assigns a person to “stand in the place of parents and possess
their legal rights toward a child.” This is called:
a. | in loco parentis | c. | res
gestae | b. | res ipsa loquitur | d. | non compos mentis |
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24.
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Authority delegated to a subordinate should be commensurate with:
a. | the subordinate’s span of authority | c. | the supervisor’s
skill | b. | the nature of work being supervised | d. | responsibility |
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25.
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A transcription unit supervisor decides that an error rate of 2% or less is
acceptable (no more than 2% of the lines transcribed may contain errors). After proofreading a
sample of work, it was determined that 2,586 lines of dictation contained 156 lines with
errors. This unit has:
a. | exactly me the standard | c. | done worse than its
standard | b. | done better than the standard | d. | an error rate cannot be
calculated |
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26.
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A job description should undergo revision:
a. | on an annual basis | c. | prior to accreditation survey | b. | when the job
function changes | d. | when a new
employee is hired |
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27.
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Which is the usual first step in applying discipline for a first
offense?
a. | termination | c. | oral reprimand | b. | suspension | d. | written warning |
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28.
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The essential items that should be recorded by all data systems to provide a
complete picture of the inpatient’s stay are referred to as the:
a. | Glossy of Hospital Terms | c. | Uniform Billing
Set | b. | Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set | d. | Professional Activity
Survey |
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29.
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As director of the health information management department, you manage the
department through four (4) supervisors who collectively supervise all of the department’s
functions. One day you notice a senior coder quickly code a discharged patient’s record
from the face sheet and then turn to the next record. She codes again from the face sheet and
turns to a third record. You should discuss the problem with the:
a. | coder | c. | human resources director | b. | health information
committee | d. | coder’s
supervisor |
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30.
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Which computer system network uses a series of computers which directly
communicate with one other without passing through a central host CPU?
a. | star | b. | ring | c. | value added | d. | local area |
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31.
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In order to be useful, data must be:
a. | collated | b. | arranged | c. | interpreted | d. | filed |
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32.
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A computer program which uses clinical information to assign inpatients to DRGs
is called a(n):
a. | encoder | b. | grouper | c. | optimizer | d. | weight
factor |
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33.
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Mary Smith was assigned patient number 35-36-49 on her previous admission.
The latest number assigned by the admitting office to a patient was 44-48-52. If the unit
numbering system is used, the number assigned to Mary Smith the next time she is admitted to the
hospital will be:
a. | 35-36-49 | b. | 35-36-50 | c. | 44-48-52 | d. | 44-48-53 |
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34.
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Which of the following systems is utilized when a patient is readmitted to the
hospital, is assigned a new medical record number, and has old medical records merged with the new
medical record?
a. | serial | c. | unit | b. | chronological | d. | serial-unit |
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35.
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Whch is the part of the computer that contains instructions for storing,
manipulating, and retrieving data?
a. | program | b. | storage | c. | control | d. | logic |
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36.
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Which lists all patients admitted to the facility in chronological order?
a. | MPI | b. | UHDDS | c. | patient register | d. | number
log |
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37.
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Which is a comprehensive medical information system for ambulatory care which
allows for the capture and storage of narrative medical information?
a. | PROMIS | b. | R-ADT | c. | COSTAR | d. | COBOL |
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38.
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In which system would downtime be a major disadvantage?
a. | ring network | c. | LAN | b. | large system with one CPU | d. | star network |
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39.
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Which device converts digital computer signals to analog signals and transmits
them over telephone lines?
a. | laser beam | b. | encoder | c. | video terminal | d. | modem |
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40.
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Who has final responsibility for the completion/accuracy of the record?
a. | governing board | c. | attending physician | b. | CEO | d. | RHIA |
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41.
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In long term care facilities, restraints may be used:
a. | at the discretion of the nurse | c. | with permission of
DON | b. | at the discretion of the administrator | d. | by order of the
doctor |
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42.
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The nurse should document the reason for administration of:
a. | narcotics | c. | PRN medications | b. | antibiotics | d. | painkillers |
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43.
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Concurrent occurrences screening provides for the identification of:
a. | instances in which improper medical care was provided | b. | unusual events that
occur during the patient’s care | c. | cases of medical
malpractice | d. | over-utilization of hospital resources |
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44.
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Virginia is the health information technician who performed analysis on charts
of patients discharged the previous day. To be sure she had all of the discharged patient
charts, she needs to:
a. | contact each nursing unit | c. | ask the doctors who they
discharged | b. | check with each ward clerk | d. | obtain the admission/discharge list |
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45.
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JCAHO standards require that if a complete history and physical has been
obtained within ____ prior to admission, a durable, legible copy may be used on the inpatient medical
record provided there is no significant change(s) recorded at the time of admission.
a. | 48 hours | b. | one week | c. | two week | d. | 30
days |
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46.
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Dr. Jones, the consulting physician on the Smith case wrote this note in the
medical record: 7/15/92 2:30 p.m. I have examined the patient, Jim Smith, and read the medical
record. Mr. Smith is complaining of chest pain and states that it has been getting
progressively worse during the past few days prior to admission. There is no evidence of any
similar occurrence in the past. The patient had cholecystectomy in 1980. The patient is
the manager of a local food distributorship; the patient states that his job is very stressful.
The patient told Dr. Jones that his father died of heart disease. Complete physical examination
was conducted and documented in the medical record. Dr. Jones also documented a number of
recommendations in the medical record. According to JCAHO standards, the report is incomplete
due to lack of a documented:
a. | suggestion for care | c. | record review | b. | history | d. | opinion |
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47.
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Which would be documented on a physical examination?
a. | cholecystectomy five years ago | c. | admission RBC | b. | eyes reacted to
light | d. | admitted for LUQ
pain |
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48.
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Which diagnosis is based upon symptoms and physical signs of two or more
contrasting diseases?
a. | tentative | b. | final | c. | provisional | d. | differential |
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49.
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All tissue specimens removed during an operation must be examined
thoroughly by a qualified pathologist:
a. | microscopically | b. | macroscopically and, when necessary,
microscopically | c. | upon the surgeon’s request | d. | microscopically and, when necessary,
macroscopically |
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50.
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Dr. Doe’s patient was discharged from the hospital on 1/1. On 1/8,
the patient was readmitted with a similar condition. Dr. Doe wrote a lengthy progress note
explaining changes in the patient’s condition since the time of discharge. The analysis
clerk marked “H&P lacking.” Upon evaluation, the clerk was:
a. | Correct; a standard H&P report needs to be documented on all inpatient admissions
to the hospital | b. | Correct; a complete H&P needs to be documented for all new inpatient admissions
to the hospital | c. | Incorrect; an interval H&P reflecting changes can be written if patient is
readmitted within 30 days | d. | incorrect; an interval H&P with documented
changes is acceptable if patient is readmitted within 1 week |
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51.
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Marge Voltz was treated in the hospital for varicose veins and was discharged
5/13. After returning to work full time, she developed complications and was readmitted on 6/9
for additional treatment of this painful condition. Her attending physician should document
a(n):
a. | complete history and physical | c. | readmission progress
note | b. | interval history and physical | d. | postscript on previous
H&P |
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52.
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Each week Dr. Blue brings a rubber signature stamp to the medical record
department. He gives it to his secretary and tells her to use it to stamp all of his dictated
reports. This means of authentication is:
a. | allowed because his secretary uses it with his permission | b. | allowed because
rubber stamps on reports are allowed by the JCAHO | c. | not allowed because the doctor is the only one
who can use it | d. | not allowed because only the doctor and health info staff can use
it |
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53.
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In the unit filing system, the file drawers or shelves should not be filled to
more than ____ capacity.
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54.
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The doctor wrote a final entry on the progress notes which read, “11/4
Patient admitted yesterday with slight epigastric pain which has been diagnosed as dyspepsia.
Patient will be discharged today to be followed in my office.” The analysis clerk marked
“discharge summary lacking” on the deficiency slip. The clerk’s analysis
was:
a. | Correct; every patient record must have a discharge summary dictated upon
discharge | b. | Incorrect; discharge summaries are not required on short-stay cases when there is a
minor problem | c. | Correct; discharge summaries are required EXCEPT for uncomplicated OB cases and
newborns | d. | Incorrect; it is up to the discretion of the physician whether or not a discharge
summary is documented |
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55.
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A deficiency slip is completed in the health information management department
and attached to the patient’s record. It is considered:
a. | a permanent part of the medical record | b. | a temporary part of the medical
record | c. | a valuable record for medico-legal purposes | d. | the only means for
doing qualitative analysis |
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56.
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Monitoring the accuracy of quantitative analysis of health records is
illustrated by:
a. | calling the physician to ask if (s)he is finished with the record | b. | verifying that the
patient was indeed discharged from the facility | c. | final analysis of records prior to filing them
in the permanent file | d. | initially flagging chart
deficiencies |
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57.
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A patient expired October 12. The pathologist submitted the completed
protocol of the autopsy two months later on December 10. The report was filed:
a. | in accordance with JCAHO standards | b. | not in accordance with JCAHO
standards | c. | in accordance with the Medicare Conditions of Participation | d. | not in accordance
with the Medical Conditions of Participation |
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58.
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An automated incomplete record control system is most useful in
situations where:
a. | the same provider has deficiencies on multiple medical records | b. | multiple providers
have deficiencies on the same medical record | c. | it’s necessary to generate a list of
reanalyzed complete records | d. | incomplete medical records are filed according
to the physician’s name |
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59.
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The clerk retrieved a medical record for a physician, completed the medical
record requisition form according to the departmental procedure for manual chart tracking. The
clerk then placed the medical record in the physician’s box. Next, the clerk should file
a copy of the requisition form in the:
a. | file guide | c. | chart locator file | b. | patient record | d. | automated tracking
system |
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60.
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A record with the discharge date of August 9 is lacking a report and two
signatures on September 15. The medical staff follows JCAHO requirements for chart
completion. This record is considered:
a. | complete | b. | incomplete | c. | delinquent | d. | deficient |
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61.
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Which numbering system makes it easiest to purge inactive medical records for
microfilming?
a. | unit | c. | serial | b. | serial-unit | d. | phonetic |
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62.
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The combining of information from independently derived sources for individuals,
groups, or institutions using a common number is called:
a. | unit numbering | c. | record linkage | b. | serial-unit numbering | d. | grouping
records |
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63.
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A list of all abstracted cases in a cancer registry, using a consecutive
numbering system prefixed by the year of the abstract is housed in the:
a. | master patient index | c. | accession register | b. | primary site index | d. | follow-up
control |
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64.
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A large university medical center which treats inpatients, emergency patients,
ambulatory care patients, and hospital clinic patients, has to file and retrieve hundreds of charts
each day. There are ten file clerks employed. The filing method in use provides for a
perfect distribution of records and permits each file clerk to be assigned responsibility for a
particular section of the files. To enhance the quality of patient care, the BEST system
to use in this facility is the _______ numbering system.
a. | serial | b. | terminal | c. | unit | d. | straight
numerical |
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65.
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The Medical Center utilizes the unit numbering system and terminal digit
filing. Of the following Medical Center numbers, which was the most recently assigned by the
admitting department?
a. | 44-10-76 | b. | 76-02-76 | c. | 56-00-76 | d. | 89-03-76 |
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66.
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The 1000 bed Metropolitan Medical Center treats inpatients, emergency patients,
ambulatory care patients and hospital clinic patients. Its medical staff also does a lot of
studies and is in constant demand of the records. The best record tracking system to use
would be:
a. | computer chart tracking | c. | employee memory | b. | use of
outguides | d. | clip board
sign-out |
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67.
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The 1000 bed Metropolitan Medical Center treats inpatients, emergency patients,
ambulatory care patients and hospital clinic patients. Hundreds of charts are filed and retried
daily. Ten file clerks are employed. The filing method in use provides for a perfect
distribution of records and allows each file clerk to be assigned responsibility for a particular
section of the files. Which filing method is utilized by this facility?
a. | serial | b. | terminal digit | c. | unit | d. | straight
numerical |
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68.
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The health information management department in a 700 bed university health care
setting provides access to records 24 hours/day, seven days/week. To best secure the
filing area and continue to maintain accessibility, the director of the health information management
department should:
a. | instruct nursing supervisors in chart retrieval | b. | be on call during
the evening and night hours | c. | staff the area with file clerks on all 3
shifts | d. | instruct the house staff in chart retrieval |
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69.
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Which is the most important consideration in the retention of records?
a. | Business Records as Evidence Act | c. | hearsay evidence
rule | b. | statute of limitations | d. | lien law |
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70.
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The 200 bed Medical Center has retained their original medical records for 20
years. The majority of the medical staff are also on the staff of the nearby 1000 bed teaching
hospital. Because of limited filing space and no money for microfilming, a decision regarding
record retention needs to be made. The best decision would be to:
a. | keep all of the medical records for research purposes | b. | destroy only those
medical records of deceased patients | c. | destroy inactive records kept beyond the
statute of limitations | d. | keep all of the medical records for educational
purposes |
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71.
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Which form of microfilm has the greatest storage density?
a. | jackets | c. | microfiche | b. | roll film | d. | unitized
microforms |
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72.
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In computing the infection rate, the ratio is that of infections to:
a. | surgical discharges | c. | anesthetics administered | b. | deaths | d. | total discharges |
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73.
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The mode of 17, 23, 94, 46, 94, 52, and 25 is _________.
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74.
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Fetal death rate is determined by dividing total number of fetal deaths for the
period by total number of:
a. | live births | c. | newborn discharges | b. | newborn admissions + fetal
deaths | d. | obstetrical
discharges |
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75.
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A fetal death at 28 weeks’ gestation is classified as:
a. | early | b. | intermediate | c. | late | d. | premature |
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76.
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Which would best illustrate the number of times changes occur over a
period of time?
a. | pie chart | c. | line graph | b. | bar diagram | d. | frequency
distribution |
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77.
|
A hospital rendered a total of 57,325 service days to adult inpatients during
the past year. It maintained a bed capacity of 250, except during January through March when a
125-bed wing was closed for alterations. Rounding off to a whole number, calculate the
inpatient bed occupancy rate.
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78.
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The census taken at midnight August 21 indicated that there were 186 patients
remaining in the hospital. On August 22, 13 adults and children were admitted and ten patients
were discharged. Calculate the daily inpatient census for August 22.
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79.
|
The Medical Center reported discharging 8,300 patients during 1990. The
hospital has a bed capacity of 290 and an occupancy rate of 78%. Calculate the bed turn-over
rate.
a. | 22.4% | b. | 28.6% | c. | 32.0% | d. | 37.1% |
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80.
|
A hospital discharged a total of 14,485 inpatients in 1987. Of those
discharges, 380 were deaths, 280 of which died over 48 hours. There were 295 autopsies
performed on inpatients, four performed on outpatients and there were nine unautopsied
coroner’s cases. Three of the deaths were from anesthesia. There were 5, 362
patients operated on and 6,004 anesthetics administered. There were 110 postoperative deaths.
Calculate the net death rate (rounded to the nearest hundredth).
a. | 1.80% | b. | 1.89% | c. | 1.95% | d. | 2.21% |
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81.
|
A hospital discharged a total of 14,485 inpatients in 1987. Of those
discharges, 380 were deaths, 280 of which died over 48 hours. There were 295 autopsies
performed on inpatients, four performed on outpatients and there were nine unautopsied
coroner’s cases. Three of the deaths were from anesthesia. There were 5, 362
patients operated on and 6,004 anesthetics administered. There were 110 postoperative deaths.
Calculate the gross autopsy rate (rounded to the nearest hundredth).
a. | 77.36% | b. | 77.55% | c. | 77.63% | d. | 77.74% |
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82.
|
The Medical Center discharged 1,300 adult and child patients and 40 newborns
during September. Total discharge days for these discharged patients was 11,500 for the adults
and children, and 270 for the newborns. The formula for the average duration of inpatient
hospitalization for adult and child patients discharged in September is:
a. | 11,500 1300 x 100 | b. |
11,770 1340 x 100 | c. | 11,500 1300 | d. | 11,770
1340 |
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83.
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The hospital had three deaths on the OB delivered service and one death on the
OB aborted service during 1987 when 575 obstetrical patients were discharged or died; the formula for
the maternal death rate is:
a. | 3 x 100 575 | b. | 4 x 100
575 | c. | 3 575 | d. | 4
575 |
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84.
|
A patient was admitted to the hospital on April 24 and discharged on May
2. The total length of stay for this patient is:
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85.
|
Service classifications can be assigned by using all but which of the following
methods?
a. | final diagnosis | c. | total length of stay | b. | attending physician
specialty | d. | treatment
rendered |
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86.
|
All accredited cancer registries must have an annual follow-up rate of at
least:
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87.
|
Predetermined elements against which aspects of quality of care may be measured
are called:
a. | criteria | b. | elements | c. | exceptions | d. | justifications |
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88.
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In determining problems that should be assessed for QM purposes, identify which
should receive priority consideration.
a. | problems which impact on staff motivation | b. | problems which
involve more than one department | c. | problems that wouldn’t cost an excessive
amount to correct | d. | problems that are having an impact on patient
care |
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89.
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The QM coordinator’s role in medical care evaluation is to:
a. | obtain and review medical records | c. | develop
criteria | b. | implement committee recommendations | d. | interview the
patient |
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90.
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When a QM study is performed to reassess the effectiveness of corrective action
and to determine whether the problem has been eliminated, we are:
a. | planning | b. | organizing | c. | actuating | d. | controlling |
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91.
|
Relevant findings from QM activities must be considering during:
a. | reappraisal/reappointment of medical staff members | b. | election of medical
staff officers | c. | renewal of contracts with hospital counsel | d. | renewal of
contracts |
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92.
|
Quality managment findings, conclusions, recommendations, actions taken, and
results of action must be:
a. | documented only in the quality assurance committee minutes and communicated solely
with those involved in the study conducted | b. | documented only in the quality assurance
committee minutes and reported through established channels to the medical staff | c. | documented in all
pertinent committee minutes and reported through established channels to the board of
directors | d. | documented only in administrative files and reported through established channels to
the chief executive officer |
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93.
|
The nuclear medicine department is going to begin review of the appropriate use
of various diagnostic modalities. What is the first step they must take in initiating this
topic-specific study?
a. | request input from the technicians employed in the department | b. | being a careful
review of medical staff rules and regulations | c. | conduct a measurement of level of care provided
to patients | d. | develop justification criteria for each modality to be
studied |
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94.
|
Identify the basic tool or control mechanism in risk management.
a. | discharge summary | c. | insurance summary | b. | incident report | d. | physician’s
note |
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95.
|
Under PPS, cases with very high costs are called:
a. | long-term patients | c. | exceptions | b. | outliers | d. | special cases |
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96.
|
When CPT coding, if the index entry reads “Hallus valgus
28290-28299,” this indicates that the coder:
a. | must utilize both codes to completely code the condition | b. | will use either
28290 or 28299 to code the condition | c. | will choose a code from the range of codes
between 28290-28299 | d. | will record all codes between the range 28290
and 28299 |
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97.
|
The path taken in a DRG decision tree is influenced by ________.
a. | gender | c. | race | b. | OR procedures | d. | admission
diagnosis |
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98.
|
In ICD-9-CM, which encloses modifiers that may be present or absent in the
diagnostic or procedural statement for code assignment?
a. | brackets | c. | parentheses | b. | braces | d. | italicized
brackets |
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99.
|
Baby Boy Baker was delivered at term by cesarean section because of a breech
presentation. On the day after birth he had an umbilical hemorrhage. The principal
diagnosis on the baby’s record would be:
a. | 652.21, Breech presentation without mention of version | b. | 763.4, Newborn
affected by cesarean delivery | c. | V30.01, Single liveborn, in hospital by
cesarean section | d. | 772.3, Umbilical hemorrhage |
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100.
|
In ICD-9-CM, a poisoning would include a(n):
a. | Digitalis intoxication due to cumulative effect of prescribed
drug | b. | reaction to prescribed Tetracycline and prescribed Theophylline | c. | adverse reaction to
Valium taken with nonprescribed aspirin | d. | interaction between two prescribed narcotic
medications |
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101.
|
The patient is seen in the office with abdominal pain. Upon evaluation, the
physician determines that the following diagnoses need to be ruled out: appendicitis, cholecystitis,
and pancreatitis. The doctor arranges for inpatient admission. The primary diagnosis
submitted on the office insurance claim is:
a. | abdominal pain | c. | cholecystitis | b. | appendicitis | d. | pancreatitis |
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102.
|
Which is a mechanical complication of an internal prosthetic device?
a. | protrusion of internal fixation nail into acetabulum | b. | infection due to
Starr-Edwards valve | c. | repeat hip placement
procedure | d. | postoperative dumping syndrome |
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103.
|
In ICD-9-CM, which of the codes below can be assigned from category V27 (Outcome
of Delivery) with category 650 (Delivery in a completely normal case)?
a. | V27.0 (single liveborn) | c. | V27.2 (twins, both
liveborn) | b. | V27.1 (single stillborn) | d. | V27.9 (unspecified) |
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104.
|
In ICD-9-CM, which is a mandatory cross-referencing direction to look somewhere
else for further information?
a. | See also | b. | See | c. | NEC | d. | NOS |
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105.
|
A patient was admitted after a motor vehicle accident for observation and
evaluation for possible intracranial injury, which was ruled out. Additional injuries included
minor bruises and skin abrasions. The principal diagnosis would be:
a. | suspected intracranial injury (854.00) | c. | minor bruises
(924.9) | b. | observation following accident (V71.4) | d. | skin abrasions
(919.0) |
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106.
|
In ICD-9-CM, the term “and” in a code title is interpreted
as:
a. | including | b. | and/or | c. | also | d. | with |
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107.
|
A patient was admitted for chemotherapy treatment for adenocarcinoma of the
breast. Following administration of the therapy, the patient became acutely ill with severe
nausea and vomiting which led to dehydration. Medications were given for nausea and vomiting
and IV fluids were administered for dehydration. The patient remained in the hospital five
days. The principal diagnosis is:
a. | adenocarcinoma of the breast | c. | nausea and
vomiting | b. | dehydration | d. | admission for chemotherapy |
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108.
|
A patient was admitted with acute myocardial infarction, and the physician noted
in the history and physical exam that the patient was status post cholecystectomy and had been
hospitalized one year previously for pneumonia as well as asthma. No mention of care for these
conditions was documented in the inpatient record for this stay. At discharge, the physician
documented the final diagnoses as: acute myocardial infarction, status post cholecystectomy,
pneumonia, and asthma. Which diagnoses should be coded for this case?
a. | acute myocardial infarction | b. | acute myocardial infarction and status post
cholecystectomy | c. | acute myocardial infarction, status post cholecystectomy, and
pnuemonia | d. | acute myocardial infarction, status post cholecystectomy, pneumonia, and
asthma |
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109.
|
The patient was admitted with lower GI bleeding. The impression was
Crohn’s disease. A lower GI series was followed by a colonoscopy and right
hemicolectomy. The day after surgery, the patient suffered an acute myocardial
infarction. A percutaneous angioplasty followed. The final diagnoses were listed on the
face sheet as myocardial infarction, emphysema, and ulcerative colitis. Procedures listed on
the face sheet were percutaneous coronary angioplasty, hemicolectomy, colonoscopy, and lower GI
series. Identify the principal diagnosis and principal procedure.
a. | acute MI and percutaneous coronary angioplasty | b. | Crohn’s
disease and hemicolectomy | c. | ulcerative colitis and
hemicolectomy | d. | lower GI bleeding and lower GI series |
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110.
|
The inpatient discharge diagnosis “rule out diabetes mellitus”
should:
a. | be coded as diabetes mellitus | b. | not be coded; code high blood sugar
instead | c. | be coded only if the condition has been ruled out | d. | assigned an
appropriate V code |
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111.
|
In ICD-9-CM, the primary arrangement of the Alphabetic Index of Procedures is
according to:
a. | site | b. | condition | c. | procedure | d. | syndrome |
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112.
|
In the diagnostic statement, “carcinoma of the lung with metastasis to the
brain,” brain is considered:
a. | primary | c. | secondary | b. | of uncertain behavior | d. | of unspecified
nature |
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113.
|
When coding neoplasms, if the primary site was previously excised or eradicated
on a previous admission with no evidence of recurrence of the original primary site and the patient
is admitted with a secondary lesion, code the:
a. | primary site, sequencing it first | b. | secondary site, listing it
first | c. | primary site as principal & code the secondary site | d. | secondary site as
principal diagnosis |
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114.
|
Check the coding on the following work sample to determine accuracy and select
the appropriate descriptive statement. You do not need access to coding books. The
physician documented the following on the inpatient face sheet: gastric carcinoma, no evidence of
recurrence; closure of gastrostomy performed. The coder assigned the following codes: V10.04
and 44.62. Which statement below is true.
a. | The codes assigned are improperly sequenced | b. | Add V55.1 (attention
to artificial gastrostomy), and sequence it first | c. | The codes V10.04 and 44.62 assigned are
appropriate for this case | d. | Assign 151.9 (gastric carcinoma), and sequence
it first |
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115.
|
Gastrointestinal hemorrhage from esophageal varices; cirrhosis of liver.
a. | 571.5 456.20 | b. | 530.8 456.0 | c. | 456.0 571.2 | d. | 456.20 571.5 |
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116.
|
Patient admitted for follow-up course of IV chemotherapy for ovarian cancer,
resected six months ago.
a. | V10.43 V58.1 99.25 | b. | V58.1 V10.43 99.25 | c. | V58.1 183.0 99.25 | d. | 183.0 99.25 |
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117.
|
A liveborn infant was delivered spontaneously with mild erythroblastosis fetalis
due to Rh incompatibility. Exchange transfusion was completed via umbilical vein
catheterization.
a. | V30.00 773.0 | b. | V30.00 773.0 99.01 38.92 | c. | 773.0 99.01 38.92 | d. | V30.00 773.1 99.01 |
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118.
|
Patient discharged after total knee joint replacement surgery. During
surgery, received 2 units of blood. Readmitted with complaints of fever, nausea, vomiting,
foamy urine; appeared acutely ill. SGOT was markedly elevated. HBSAG identified in
serum. She developed hepatic coma; recovery was slow. Discharge diagnosis:
post-transfusion Hepatitis B with hepatic coma. Hospital course complicated by exacerbation of
chronic obstructive bronchitis; responded well to Theophylline and respiratory therapy.
a. | 070.20 491.21 V43.6 | b. | 070.20 491.21 | c. | 070.30 493.2 V43.6 | d. | 070.20 572.2 491.21 V43.6 |
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119.
|
Allergic reaction to penicillin.
a. | 995.2 E856 | b. | 960.0 E856 | c. | 995.2 E930.0 | d. | 960.0 E930.0 |
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120.
|
Carcinoma of axillary lymph nodes and lungs, metastatic from breast.
a. | 174.9 196.3 197.0 | b. | 196.3 197.0 V10.3 | c. | 162.9 174.9 196.3 | d. | 162.9 196.3 198.81 |
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121.
|
Acute lymphadenitis due to AIDS:
a. | 683 042 | b. | 042 683 | c. | 683 | d. | 042 |
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122.
|
Acute schizophrenic episode in schizophrenic patient with previous long-term
remission.
a. | 295.23 | b. | 295.25 | c. | 295.43 | d. | 295.45 |
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123.
|
Alzheimer’s disease with dementia.
a. | 294.10 | b. | 331.0 | c. | 331.0 294.10 | d. | 294.10 331.0 |
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124.
|
Alcoholism with hypoglycemic reaction.
a. | 303.90 250.90 | b. | 303.90 | c. | 303.90 251.2 | d. | 250.90 |
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125.
|
Gangrene due to diabetes mellitus (IDDM); postoperative dehiscence of stump;
previous amputation of four toes on the same limb (1986). Below-knee amputation of leg.
Resuture of BK stump.
a. | 735.8 785.4 250.71 998.3 84.12 86.59 | b. | 785.4 250.01 998.3 V45.89 86.59 84.16 | c. | 736.89 250.71 785.4 996.1 84.12 84.15 | d. | 250.71 785.4 998.3 84.15 86.59 |
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126.
|
Tuberculosis of lymph node of neck. Biopsy of cervical lymph node.
Excision of lymph node.
a. | 012.13 40.3 40.21 | b. | 017.25 40.29 40.11 | c. | 017.25 40.21 40.11 | d. | 017.23 40.23 40.21 |
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127.
|
Congestive heart failure due to hypertension. Chronic renal
failure.
a. | 402.91 403.91 | b. | 404.93 | c. | 428.0 401.9 585 | d. | 404.93 428.0 |
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128.
|
Nonunion of tibial shaft fracture. Patient fell off ladder while painting
his house four months ago.
a. | 733.82 823.20 E929.3 | b. | 733.82 905.4 E929.3 | c. | 823.20 833.82 E881.0 | d. | 733.82 905.4 E881.0 |
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129.
|
Patient delivered at 40 weeks gestation, male infant LOA. Routine
amniotomy, low forceps, and episiotomy.
a. | 650 V27.0 72.1 73.09 | b. | 669.51 650 V27.0 72.1 73.09 | c. | 669.5 V27.0 72.1 73.09 | d. | 669.51 V27.0 72.1 73.09 |
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130.
|
Pulmonary insufficiency due to blow to chest. Patient hit with baseball
playing in a game.
a. | 518.89 E917.0 | b. | 518.5 E917.0 | c. | 424.3 E917.0 | d. | 518.89 E917.0 |
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131.
|
99 year old male pulled foley out at nursing home; staff there unable to
reinsert. Blood at urethral meatus following this (probably due to staff reinsertion of foley
attempt causing urethral tear). Negative otherwise. Patient transported to hospital ED
where foley reinserted by RN. Small amount of blood seen at urethral meatus. UA reveals
RBCs too numerous to count and WBC 15-19 per/hpf. Patient on Lasix and Cardizem at nursing home
for chronic CHF. No edema or signs of failure noted. Diagnosis is UTI.
a. | V53.6 599.0 | b. | 599.0 428.0 | c. | 867.0 599.0 | d. | 867.0 599.0 428.0 |
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132.
|
Pt treated for comminuted intra-articular fracture, left distal radius.
a. | 813.42 | b. | 813.43 | c. | 813.44 | d. | 813.53 |
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133.
|
Patient diagnosed with benign lipomatous fibroadipose tissue in breasts.
a. | 214.1 | b. | 217 | c. | 709.9 | d. | 217 709.9 |
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134.
|
Removal of bilateral breast tumor with frozen section.
a. | 19100 19120 | b. | 19120 | c. | 19120 09950 | d. | 19120 19120 |
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135.
|
1 cm. wide excision of malignant melanoma, left chest wall with split thickness
skin graft (200 sq. cm.). Incision carried down to deep fascia.
a. | 11601 15100 15101 | b. | 11601 12031 15100 15101 | c. | 12031 15100 15100 | d. | 15100 15101 |
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136.
|
Removal of foreign body, right food (deep) and irrigation of foot wound.
a. | 10121 | b. | 28192 | c. | 28002 | d. | 11040 28192 |
|
|
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137.
|
Patient underwent right wrist arthroscopy.
a. | 29840 | b. | 29840 29846 | c. | 29846 | d. | 29877 |
|
|
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138.
|
Patient underwent right great toe complete amputation because of non-healing
right great toe transphalangeal amputation.
a. | 25931 | b. | 28810 | c. | 28820 | d. | 28825 |
|
|
|
139.
|
Direct laryngoscopy with laser excision of recurrent papillomatosis.
a. | 31512 | b. | 31540 | c. | 31641 | d. | 31530 |
|
|
|
140.
|
Patient underwent thrombectomy of left forearm AV graft.
a. | 34111 | b. | 34490 | c. | 35875 | d. | 36825 |
|
|
|
141.
|
Patient underwent removal of pacemaker generator.
a. | 33212 | b. | 33216 | c. | 33218 | d. | 33233 |
|
|
|
142.
|
Patient underwent rigid esophagoscopy with foreign body removal.
a. | 43020 | b. | 43215 | c. | 43247 | d. | 74235 |
|
|
|
143.
|
Patient underwent closed treatment by interdental fixation for fracture.
a. | 21110 | b. | 21453 | c. | 21345 | d. | 21497 |
|